Can anyone else confirm this? Maybe this is a question for Heather?
My symptoms are primarily upper GI - gas pain, indigestion, back pain, nausea; no C but hard/pebbly stool w/lots of mucous (gross, sorry). I was diagnosed w/IBS seven years ago after *extensive* GI testing. Had a flare-up 2+ months ago, with same symptoms. MD put me on lo-dose (5mg) Amitriptylene. Fiber supplements, lo-dose antidepressant, exercise and Eating for IBS Diet help IMMENSELY... although I'm still unable to eat anything more than the very basic SF's...
BUT: In 'IBS The First Year' - Chapter 1 says "upper GI symptoms are not related to the syndrome..." Does this mean "never" or "not usually"?
My MD's been great so far, and will re-do tests at my insistence (since he is sticking w/original diagnosis)... but before I go back, I want to get some info & feedback from people here as to whether this is a) necessary and b) not IBS, and push for another diagnosis?
I'm so confused!! Any input would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.
kk
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